Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 04:21
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What would you do if you found out that someone had broken into your home while you were sleeping?
You'll usually find your answer there.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What ESPN’s Football Power Index is projecting for Big 12 rivals BYU and Utah in 2025 - Deseret News
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.